Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Why are fewer English people going to their local pubs for a drink? Are they aware that many pubs are shutting down due to lack of customers?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Does a narcissist ever get their comeuppance/karma for the vile things they've done? Such as cheating, smear campaign, etc.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

There's no rule.

Which branch of engineering is better: ECE or Civil?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

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